1) The defendant Harrison, who's an auctioneer advertised the sale 'without reserve' of a mare by public auction.
2) Plaintiff, Warlow attended the auction and bid 60G.
3) Horse owner attended too, and bid 61G.
4) Plaintiff knew that it was the horse owner who bid 61G, so he didn't bother bidding any higher.
5) Auctioneer, Harrison, knocked down the hammer 3 times to the horse owner.
Plaintiff : Held that it was the auctioneer was the plaintiff's agent to complete the contract but
failed to claim against defendant as there was no agency relationship.
(someone who represents your interest in real estate and owes you a duty)
Without Reserve - Owner could not bid on it's own property.
And the property will be sold to the highest bona fide (honest purchaser) bidder, whether the bid is equivalent to the real value of the property or not.
Held : Highest bona fide bidder at the auction may sue the auctioneer if a sale was without reserve.
There was a breach of contract between auctioneer and highest bona fide bidder, therefore the plaintiff has the right of action against the auctioneer.
Claim successful.
Love what you are doing guys.keep it up...i like the order of incidents in the cases and the simplicity in the language which makes them easily comprehensible...really helpful
ReplyDeleteSo glad I found this blog...thank you so much!
ReplyDeletethis blog's so helpful! thanks a bunch!
ReplyDeletevery helpful and easy to understand thanks for this blog...:-)
ReplyDeleteGreat blog, keep it up!!
ReplyDeleteI got this case under 'invitation to treat' and I still don't get how it applies here as an issue..seems to me that it had nothing to do with whether it was or not...can anyone clear this up for me
ReplyDeleteObiter statement: ''... the auctioneer makes an offer that the sale will be without reserve, in that case that is an offer and not an invitation to trear which will be accepted by the highest bidder at the auction.''
DeleteThis was confirmed in [Barry v Davies] 2000
The issue is usually whether was the auction WITH or WITHOUT reserve.
ReplyDeleteIf with reserve, meaning that the owner could keep the item to sell for a minimum price.
If without reserve, the goods could be auctioned off even for $1 when it's actually worth maybe $1000
Can I suck your diiiick?
ReplyDeleteKeep it up! :D (not your penis)
any of you doing llb here??
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeletegreat job....
ReplyDeletewho keeps the horse?!?!?!?!?!?!?!
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteThis blog has been really helpful, thanks :)
ReplyDeleteJust like to ask whether "all good must be sold - whatever the price" constitute an unilateral offer as in this case.
ReplyDeleteThanks
Really it is useful.
ReplyDeleteThank you.
Was it an ITT or an offer?
ReplyDeletei like the arrangement of the facts. but could u also add aq link to the full case. i would appreciate
ReplyDeletelike the symplicity and wish i would get a down load of all this stuff in relation to contract law
ReplyDeleteWhen there is an auction without Reserve does it become an
ReplyDeleteunilateral offer
Yes
ReplyDelete